Them shutting down CE was a good thing. Ever since 2016, they stopped allowing viewpoints from all but one side. It was either "you agree wholeheartedly with whatever opinions the left-leaning mods hold, or you get banned".
This created a toxic wasteland that the new owners apparently wanted to quarantine.
So now the mods can all smugly rule over their kingdom of ashes. Congrats!
The left scolds the right for having standards of dress for school children, making accusations of pedophilia for potentially "being distracted" by cleavage or short skirts. Meanwhile, they cover up anime girls. They have no principles.
This verse about the woman only appears in younger manuscripts, and is absent in older manuscripts, therefore, many bibles have a note saying that these verses may be a forgery.
But yes, I would agree, forgiveness depends upon repentance.
Yes only one account gives the name of a slave who got his ear cut off.
...And your point is? Oh, I guess you don't have one.
So once again you don’t have any irrefutable proof that it was only one slave correct?
I gave my irrefutable proof already. You didn't refute it. So I guess we're done here.
Because both accounts say "the slave" not "a slave", and the account in John gives him a name. Neither account says that "slaves", plural, were attacked. In fact, all four gospels, Matthew, Mark, Like, and John all say "the slave".
Don't you think it would be a huge, unlikely, coincidence that two or four different apostles drew swords and managed to cut off ears of four different slaves of the same high priest? Were they trained specifically to cut off ears?
This is just sad.
However, you can’t prove they are both the same account of the same person being attacked.
Yes I can, easily.
Both gospels explicitly mention a date, and a celebration around all these events occurred. The Passover, and the meal that took place on that date. This is the "last supper". John, in chapter 13, and Matthew in 26.
There is only one Last Supper. After this last supper, they all went to the garden of Gethsemane, where he was betrayed and arrested.
Both accounts depict Jesus being betrayed by Judas, with him bringing the ones who would arrest him. This only happened once.
Are you saying that Jesus was betrayed by Judas and arrested twice, and in both cases a slave of the high priest had his ear cut off?
Did Jesus escape one of those times, so that he needed to be arrested twice? How many "last suppers" did he have? How many times did he meet Pilate?
Read your Bible, you are embarrassing yourself. This is basic Bible stuff that children know.
So Matthew 26:51 talks about someone who drew a sword, and cut off the ear of the slave of the high priest.
And John 18:10 says that Simon Peter drew a sword, and cut off the ear of the slave of the high priest.
And you think that these are two different events? You think that "someone" in Matthew isn't Peter?
Wow. That's sad.
You seem to be entirely unaware that the gospels recount the same events from different perspective and different words. You have so little bible knowledge that you think that Matthew 26:52 and John 18:10 describe different events. You've clearly proven how well you know your bible, and that is, not at all.
That's sad. You are like a sheep, skinned and thrown about, without a shepherd.
Read your bible. If you even have one, that is.
If your starting argument is that part of the Bible is just wrong because of man-made error
What is considered to be "the bible"? What counts as "Scripture"? Does it include the book of Enoch? Maccabees? Does it include verses that are only present in younger manuscripts, but not more recently found older manuscripts?
Wasn’t Peter, again you show more conjecture than knowledge.
Okay, since you know your Bible so well, who was it? What does John 18:10 say? Please quote it for us
If John 18:10 says that it wasn't Peter, then I will concede that you know more about the Bible than I do. If you get it wrong, however, then that means I know more than you. Deal?
Okay so go on, what does John 18:10 say?
I’m sorry you’re now claiming a completely different line is a forgery. So you’re clearly retarded…
I am talking about John 8:1-11. Those verses include one of Jesus' "go and sin no more" quotes and "let he who is without sin cast the first stone".
All of those verses are a suspected forgery, and I've been talking about the same thing this whole time, you just don't know your bible.
Your argument is that because Jesus said to act in self defense...
He didn't tell Christians to act in self defense.
that is very clearly Jesus telling his disciples to arm themselves isn’t it!?
And what's the next thing that happened? Jesus reproving Peter and telling him "live by the sword, die by the sword".
What do you think that means?
Go and sin no more is repeated quite literally twice by Jesus in the book of John alone. You have absolutely no clue what you’re talking about.
I am not arguing that Jesus doesn't want people to sin. I am just saying, that the "let he who is without sin cast the first stone" account is likely a forgery.
There are plenty of references to violence in the Bible, especially the Old Testament. Are you saying David was not justified? Did god punish him for killing Goliath? Jesus dies for a purpose, and tells his apostles so, so another false equivalency of stupidity. Jesus also beat people with a whip himself so yes Christians committed violence.
That's what I thought, you couldn't name a single Christian who acted in self-defense.
A false equivalency is a logical fallacy saying because only someone can do something does not mean anything one person does is only allotted to them.
Why do you think that, just because Jesus did something, all Christians are authorized to do that thing? I've clearly shown that not all Christians are authorized for forgive sins, so there must be more to it than "Jesus did it!"
And you can't name a single Christian who acted in self-defense.
So what leads you to believe that Christians are authorized to use violence?
Imagine the stupidity it takes to even state that it was a “forgery” because it appeared first…
By "earlier manuscripts", I am referring to the date the manuscript was found, not the age of the manuscript itself.
Like I said, you can research this yourself. Go do that.
You mean the difference between self defense and causing harm for no reason?
One would think that trying to save Jesus from being turned over to his executioners would not be "causing harm for no reason", but Jesus apparently disagreed.
Name one Christian in the Bible who fought in self-defense. Go on.
That statement is a hilarious logical fallacy
How so? Do you have an argument or are you just chanting "logical fallacy" like it's a magic phrase that causes you to win the argument?
You're the one claiming that, because Jesus did something, all Christians have the authority to do that same thing. Do you stand by that or not?
"Go forth and sin no more"
This is from a verse that is believed by many to be a forgery, since it only appears in earlier manuscripts, but not older ones. Many bibles have John 8 start at verse 12, for this reason, or otherwise have a very obvious note explaining this. You can research this by googling "Pericope adulterae".
The pseudo Christian arguments completely forget Jesus explicitly said lethal self defense
Do you mean when Jesus told his followers to take swords, and then condemned Peter when he cut off the ear of the slave of the high priest? "Live by the sword, die by the sword".
whipping heathens
Jesus has the authority to forgive sins. Does that mean that all Christians also have the authority to forgive sins? Just because Jesus did something, it doesn't mean that all Christians have that authority.
The bible only speaks about one unforgivable sin, at Hebrews 10:26. Sinning deliberately after having knowledge of the truth, is the unforgivable sin.
Child rape, theft, murder, is not necessarily the unforgivable sin. Doing those things after coming to know Jesus, is.
They are equally forgiven, not equally bad.
Have you even read the bible?