That's not true, and you kind of alluded to it in your statement that Asians are exempt. That's being wildly reductive in that we're not going to see any such thing as "under" or "over-representation" in IQ distributions, because it asserts some level of equality to an average in and of itself. Even if you were to take biological strata, and examine their IQ distributions, they would still over-lap with the average, and it wouldn't tell us anything useful. If you took American populations, then you couldn't use a comparison to biological strata, because those are often self-selected. For example, Africa has some of the lowest IQ's on Earth, but the US has one of the most successful and high-IQ populations of African migrants to the US, which also are markedly higher than American blacks.
Then, of course, there's culture which can cause a dramatic effect on things like IQ. East & West Germany are great examples of this since it's almost exactly the same people biologically, except the East Germans had a mean IQ that was 1 sd difference lower than West Germans, and that was the result of being ruled by Communists.
There is ABOSLUTELY NO QUESTION that certain broad demographics are "over" or "under" represented in terms of national IQ.
Sure it does. What is "representation" supposed to mean here? What is the "correct" representation in IQ?
Let's say Wakanda is real and is filled with 210 IQ, galaxy brain, elder gods.
If one and only one of them moves to the US, are they "over-representative"? Why? If they are higher than the average, that doesn't make them "over-represented in the higher end of the IQ distribution of national IQ". That would just be their location within the national distribution. The national distribution of IQ would literally just be the bell curve itself. Where someone falls within it is not an "over/under-representation".
The left uses the term "over/under-representation" to claim that something is discriminatory, because in a tabula rasa analysis, all peoples would be at the exact same representation with the sheer number of them in the population.
Well, that shit is not only wrong, but certainly wouldn't make sense for a biological analysis. Young people are not "under-represented" in IQ distributions, they just have lower IQ on average due to their age. There's no reason to assume Tabula Rasa with biological factors, nor is there are reason to assume that it is the result of unfair treatment.
Young people are not "under-represented" in IQ distributions, they just have lower IQ on average due to their age.
That's not how IQ works, unless you're talking about people who haven't even developed the verbal skills to be effectively tested for IQ, in which case it's an irrelevant distinction that has nothing to do with why different groups might have different IQ distributions.
That's not true, and you kind of alluded to it in your statement that Asians are exempt. That's being wildly reductive in that we're not going to see any such thing as "under" or "over-representation" in IQ distributions, because it asserts some level of equality to an average in and of itself. Even if you were to take biological strata, and examine their IQ distributions, they would still over-lap with the average, and it wouldn't tell us anything useful. If you took American populations, then you couldn't use a comparison to biological strata, because those are often self-selected. For example, Africa has some of the lowest IQ's on Earth, but the US has one of the most successful and high-IQ populations of African migrants to the US, which also are markedly higher than American blacks.
Then, of course, there's culture which can cause a dramatic effect on things like IQ. East & West Germany are great examples of this since it's almost exactly the same people biologically, except the East Germans had a mean IQ that was 1 sd difference lower than West Germans, and that was the result of being ruled by Communists.
Your objection isn't well formed.
Don't forget who you are conversing with here...that's kind of his specialty.
Truth is simple.
Lies are complex.
Sure it does. What is "representation" supposed to mean here? What is the "correct" representation in IQ?
Let's say Wakanda is real and is filled with 210 IQ, galaxy brain, elder gods.
If one and only one of them moves to the US, are they "over-representative"? Why? If they are higher than the average, that doesn't make them "over-represented in the higher end of the IQ distribution of national IQ". That would just be their location within the national distribution. The national distribution of IQ would literally just be the bell curve itself. Where someone falls within it is not an "over/under-representation".
The left uses the term "over/under-representation" to claim that something is discriminatory, because in a tabula rasa analysis, all peoples would be at the exact same representation with the sheer number of them in the population.
Well, that shit is not only wrong, but certainly wouldn't make sense for a biological analysis. Young people are not "under-represented" in IQ distributions, they just have lower IQ on average due to their age. There's no reason to assume Tabula Rasa with biological factors, nor is there are reason to assume that it is the result of unfair treatment.
That's not how IQ works, unless you're talking about people who haven't even developed the verbal skills to be effectively tested for IQ, in which case it's an irrelevant distinction that has nothing to do with why different groups might have different IQ distributions.
I think we've just found out which quintile Gizortnik is in
Yes it does. Your IQ changes over-time. There has never been a baby with a 100 IQ, and there never will be. Your IQ declines after 40.
That isn't over or under representation by any sense of the word.
You're comparing whites and blacks. That means nothing about blacks being 'under-represented'.