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92
This is how I'm coming close to accept we need Wrath (media.kotakuinaction2.win)
posted 4 years ago by SupremeReader 4 years ago by SupremeReader +92 / -0
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▲ 20 ▼
– lapalapa 20 points 4 years ago +20 / -0

Homosexual fornication is a sin? The wages of sin are death?

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▲ 5 ▼
– acp_k2win 5 points 4 years ago +5 / -0

I think just rolling back the civil rights act and other federal overreach including the ability of the supreme court to override state laws would be good enough.

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▲ 17 ▼
– deleted 17 points 4 years ago +17 / -0
▲ 5 ▼
– el_hoovy 5 points 4 years ago +5 / -0

whoa whoa pede goyim, too close to the truth there, your false g*d (eugh! disgusting goyim!) said judge not so you better listen little gentile...

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▲ 4 ▼
– deleted 4 points 4 years ago +4 / -0
▲ 4 ▼
– ProdigalPlaneswalker 4 points 4 years ago +4 / -0

mistranslation

Did this occur from Hebrew to Latin?

Or from Latin to English?

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▲ 8 ▼
– MattTheBlack 8 points 4 years ago +8 / -0

Hebrew to Greek then to English if I remember correctly

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▲ 6 ▼
– Assassin47 6 points 4 years ago +6 / -0

The King James version would've been translated directly from Hebrew and Aramaic, not Latin. How much of a "mistranslation" it is is debatable. I've seen arguments on both sides.

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▲ 4 ▼
– Hyponoeo 4 points 4 years ago +4 / -0

Yeah but even the evidence is pretty heavily weighted to it as a mistranslation vs it not.

Even the Septuagint, which was a translation made by the Jews translated it to the murder and not a generic kill which shows the Jews clearly believed that was the word for murder and not kill or they would have translated it that way. Not to mention the semantic domain of the hebrew word compared to the alternative word that could be used simply doesn't support a generic universal "Kill" definition. And, honestly Hebrew scholarship is incredibly heavily weighted one direction on this to the point it is rarely even a controversy. Sure you can always find some argument one way, but that is pretty rarely argued for when so much is weighted one way. But hey maybe they are all wrong :) Sometimes the less believed thing is right.

But honestly looking at the evidence on this one it really is weighted all one way... with the arguments the other way really stretches trying to hard to find something....

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... continue reading thread?
▲ 4 ▼
– Hyponoeo 4 points 4 years ago +4 / -0

I am not sure there but even in the Septuagint it distinguishes between kill and murder appropriately in the Greek.

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▲ 2 ▼
– Piroko 2 points 4 years ago +2 / -0

KJV Genesis wasn't translated from Greek. The First Westminster Company (the team assigned to Genesis) used the hebrew directly from the 1524 Bomberg printing of the Rabbinic Bible. The Bomberg print was done under the approval of Pope Leo X, and was the first COMPLETE printed edition of the Pentateuch ever. There WERE some punctuation errors in the 1519 printing that rabbais complained about but those were fixed by 1524.

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... continue reading thread?
▲ 1 ▼
– Piroko 1 point 4 years ago +1 / -0

"Thou shalt not kill" is a mistranslation

It is not.

Genesis 20:13 KJV is very clear.

Thou shalt not kill.

There have been hundreds of reviews of the KJV over the last few centuries and only ONE line in the entire text is disputed, Hebrew 13:8. King James was VERY clear to the six translation teams he commissioned for the project; he wanted the FINAL, perfect, canonical english edition.

And it was shortly after that translation that George Fox was like yeah, that means no killing.

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