I am aware of that. My point was that even the Jewish scholars of 300BCish were translating it to the equivalent of murder instead of kill [which there was a seperate greek word for, which would have worked for "kill" if they thought it meant that... but they clearly didn't and instead used the greek murder word] which shows how at least back then [which is pretty far back] they were having an understanding of it being that in their original language instead of kill and the argument on the side of it actually meaning specifically murder has at least over 2000 years worth of history by a strong source. Not to mention you can't forget the entire context of what else is written with the book. if it meant generically kill it makes zero sense with the context of the rest of the pentateuch while it is the most obvious and simple explanation to have it make sense if we didn't have the original language studies to go on [as in, it is hardly a stretch to think it meant murder when it is cohesive with the rest of the pentateuch while kill is not at ALL cohesive with it]].

I am simply making that point though as the Septuagint is one of the most important translations of the Old Testament out there [it was literally the bible of the early christian church [as the new testament was being written] including that of many new testament authors who quoted directly from Septuagint translations incredibly often in the New Testament itself.

I get the feeling you are a KJonlyist by a few of your other posts on here. Would I be correct?