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posted 1 year ago by NikolaiVsevolodovich 1 year ago by NikolaiVsevolodovich +48 / -0
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▲ 7 ▼
– ArchRespawnsAgain 7 points 1 year ago +7 / -0

I didn't accuse the settlers of starting the war until they actually did start open terrorism, hence dating the start in the 1940s rather than earlier.

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▲ 4 ▼
– AntonioOfVenice 4 points 1 year ago +4 / -0

But if the settlers were already being massacred before, how could they have started it aftewards? Unless you want to claim that settlement itself is an act of aggression - but then you should have predated the time when 'the Jews stared it'.

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▲ 9 ▼
– ArchRespawnsAgain 9 points 1 year ago +9 / -0

The settlement is aggression but not really war.

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▲ 2 ▼
– AntonioOfVenice 2 points 1 year ago +2 / -0

Can you then say that the war was started in the 1940s and not with the Arab revolt?

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▲ 5 ▼
– ArchRespawnsAgain 5 points 1 year ago +5 / -0

You couldn't say the Arab revolt started it. You'd have to push the date up to the settlements that lead to it. That gets tricky because a small number of settlements feels like something unworthy of being called the start of a war, but continuous settlements in large numbers is certainly worth seeing as an aggressive act. It's hard to define a point where the settlements crossed the line.

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▲ 1 ▼
– 5Cats 1 point 1 year ago +1 / -0

It is aggression to settle in your own homeland.
Got it! 😋

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▲ 4 ▼
– ArchRespawnsAgain 4 points 1 year ago +4 / -0

Why would one need to settle in their own homeland? Shouldn't they already be there?

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