23 () posted 1 year ago by folx 1 year ago by folx +25 / -2 31 comments share 31 comments share save hide report block hide replies
Why do legal fictions own property at all?
In order to enable the proletarianized elites of the managerial class to seize the means of production from the bourgeoisie.
Tent, you are always raising your hand and giving the correct answer. Let someone else guess for a change!
Although, I will say, your answer isn't entirely complete. It also steals the means of production from the actual proletariat and the peasantry.