You are now at the point of gaslighting because you think the English used slave as slur and not Turk, when we know the opposite is true for each and there are records of people complaining that a European government was being barbarous for behaving 'like a Turk'.
You got proven hilariously wrong on both. Turk was created as a slur by the ottomans and slave was created as a slur in Latin and then continued as a slur in English.
We are talking about the word "Slave" so you switch languages and claim that "Sclavus" because you need to speak a different language using a different word to make the argument work.
Sclavus is the root word of slave you pedantic retard.
Sclavi (people), common Latin term for Slavic peoples
"sclavi" is a plural form of "sclavus", a Latin word for slave
Why did the word slave become the word for slavery there pookums? Were the English involved in the sale and trade of slaves? Please, please keep showcasing your stupidity, this is adorable.
What are some chinese racial slurs? Those will be relevant to modern English too.
Why do you have this insane concept of objective linguistic essentialism? A word is defined in one language, and therefore it's definition, let alone connotation, never changes, even when used in other languages hundreds of years later?
What are some chinese racial slurs? Those will be relevant to modern English too.
You mean like Baizuo? Funny how you went running to goalpost change. Tell me, were the English racist against Slavic people when the word slave was made? Did they engage in the sale and transport of Slavs?
Why do you have this insane concept of objective linguistic essentialism? A word is defined in one language, and therefore it's definition, let alone connotation, never changes, even when used in other languages hundreds of years later?
Has the connotation changed? Does slave still mean an owned human? Was the word specific to denigrate one race in particular as inferior and as property? Why did the English never change the definition of the word slave when they did so for servant?
You changed the goal post by using a different word in a different language. Hell, you just went to a different god damned field.
It’s the exact same word. This is you trying to split hairs over kardiakos and cardiac. Funny how you keep trying to dodge. Were the English involved in the slave trade? Were they racist against the Slavs? Why did they change the meaning of servant but not slave?
You got proven hilariously wrong on both. Turk was created as a slur by the ottomans and slave was created as a slur in Latin and then continued as a slur in English.
Sclavus is the root word of slave you pedantic retard.
Why did the word slave become the word for slavery there pookums? Were the English involved in the sale and trade of slaves? Please, please keep showcasing your stupidity, this is adorable.
What are some chinese racial slurs? Those will be relevant to modern English too.
Why do you have this insane concept of objective linguistic essentialism? A word is defined in one language, and therefore it's definition, let alone connotation, never changes, even when used in other languages hundreds of years later?
You mean like Baizuo? Funny how you went running to goalpost change. Tell me, were the English racist against Slavic people when the word slave was made? Did they engage in the sale and transport of Slavs?
Has the connotation changed? Does slave still mean an owned human? Was the word specific to denigrate one race in particular as inferior and as property? Why did the English never change the definition of the word slave when they did so for servant?
You changed the goal post by using a different word in a different language. Hell, you just went to a different god damned field.
It’s the exact same word. This is you trying to split hairs over kardiakos and cardiac. Funny how you keep trying to dodge. Were the English involved in the slave trade? Were they racist against the Slavs? Why did they change the meaning of servant but not slave?