I think the doubt is more in the number.
6M Jews. Hmm.
As of today, there are what, 118K Jews in Germany, 6.3M Jews in ISRAEL, and 16M total Jews in the world?
Even in the US where they number the most 5.7M for a non Jewish state they are 1.7% of the population. Probably less.
And that's basically the same everywhere. Roughly 1% of any given country's population. A little more or less here or there. The population size of Germany pre WW2 is suspiciously hard to get reliable info on but roughly 60M. 1% of that would be 600,000. And we could extrapolate to France Poland etc. To be honest, I don't think there were 6M Jews to be found in Europe at the time.
There's no real arguments about the 6 million number, counting non-jewish holocaust deaths is more contentious because some people just don't want to include any non-jewish deaths in what counts as the holocaust, rather than just additional killings.
The problem is you have a ton of false presumptions here of what you think the number of jews in a country should be, and that's just not the case, especially when you start broadening the definition of who a jew is under the Nuremburg Laws.
At the time, I don't remember the exact figure, but there would have been well over ten million jews in Europe at the time. And in this case (because the Nazis are counting them this way), we have to consider anyone of any parental heritage to a jew, even if non-practicing. Many jews would have self-identified as such, though in Germany, there were many jews that didn't (which is why the Nazis built entire departments to find jews that weren't self-identifying and were non-practicing, all through lineage) were calling themselves "Germans of the mosaic faith" and identifying as German... because they actually did see themselves as German, not jewish. Capitalization was intentional there because they were subscribing to an idea of Germanism.
IIRC, there were over a million jews in Germany as well. Poland, on the other hand, while not being majority jewish, had probably the single highest number of jews per capita in Europe. This is one of the primary reasons that there were so many concentration and extermination camps built in the country. IIRC, there were at least 4 million jews in Poland alone. Again, don't have the exact numbers off the top of my head, but were somewhere vaugely around 30% of the population.
And this is a critical point, Hitler wasn't trying to push jews just out of Germany. The logic of judeo-bolshevism is that no jew can exist anywhere. If you remove jews from Germany, and let them settle in Poland, then they will cross the border. You have to get rid of all of them, everywhere, all at once (which is what Kristallnacht was about, but just for everywhere in Germany). He's trying to "save Europe", by removing or killing every jew in Europe. This is also why he didn't just focus on mass relocation, like other genocides do. If you just remove and displace people, there's a chance they could return, or gather into an army, or become the majority demographic somewhere. Historical evidence does show that even if jews are forcibly relocated, they will often return. So, relocation doesn't solve the judeo-bolshevism problem that states that all jews, everywhere, will always seek to destroy nations, and will travel to nations in order to parasitize and destroy them. You can't allow any single jew alive. You have to kill all of them.
Hence, why the NatSocs where forcing Italy to export Italian Jewish Fascists to be sent to extermination or concentration camps. They didn't just kill jews in Germany, or in Poland, but in every single country that they could get the puppet governments to agree to. This is also why Poland experienced such a massive population loss from the war. It's actually one of the only countries losses from war are rivaled by losses explicitly from the Holocaust.
I think the doubt is more in the number. 6M Jews. Hmm.
As of today, there are what, 118K Jews in Germany, 6.3M Jews in ISRAEL, and 16M total Jews in the world?
Even in the US where they number the most 5.7M for a non Jewish state they are 1.7% of the population. Probably less.
And that's basically the same everywhere. Roughly 1% of any given country's population. A little more or less here or there. The population size of Germany pre WW2 is suspiciously hard to get reliable info on but roughly 60M. 1% of that would be 600,000. And we could extrapolate to France Poland etc. To be honest, I don't think there were 6M Jews to be found in Europe at the time.
There's no real arguments about the 6 million number, counting non-jewish holocaust deaths is more contentious because some people just don't want to include any non-jewish deaths in what counts as the holocaust, rather than just additional killings.
The problem is you have a ton of false presumptions here of what you think the number of jews in a country should be, and that's just not the case, especially when you start broadening the definition of who a jew is under the Nuremburg Laws.
At the time, I don't remember the exact figure, but there would have been well over ten million jews in Europe at the time. And in this case (because the Nazis are counting them this way), we have to consider anyone of any parental heritage to a jew, even if non-practicing. Many jews would have self-identified as such, though in Germany, there were many jews that didn't (which is why the Nazis built entire departments to find jews that weren't self-identifying and were non-practicing, all through lineage) were calling themselves "Germans of the mosaic faith" and identifying as German... because they actually did see themselves as German, not jewish. Capitalization was intentional there because they were subscribing to an idea of Germanism.
IIRC, there were over a million jews in Germany as well. Poland, on the other hand, while not being majority jewish, had probably the single highest number of jews per capita in Europe. This is one of the primary reasons that there were so many concentration and extermination camps built in the country. IIRC, there were at least 4 million jews in Poland alone. Again, don't have the exact numbers off the top of my head, but were somewhere vaugely around 30% of the population.
And this is a critical point, Hitler wasn't trying to push jews just out of Germany. The logic of judeo-bolshevism is that no jew can exist anywhere. If you remove jews from Germany, and let them settle in Poland, then they will cross the border. You have to get rid of all of them, everywhere, all at once (which is what Kristallnacht was about, but just for everywhere in Germany). He's trying to "save Europe", by removing or killing every jew in Europe. This is also why he didn't just focus on mass relocation, like other genocides do. If you just remove and displace people, there's a chance they could return, or gather into an army, or become the majority demographic somewhere. Historical evidence does show that even if jews are forcibly relocated, they will often return. So, relocation doesn't solve the judeo-bolshevism problem that states that all jews, everywhere, will always seek to destroy nations, and will travel to nations in order to parasitize and destroy them. You can't allow any single jew alive. You have to kill all of them.
Hence, why the NatSocs where forcing Italy to export Italian Jewish Fascists to be sent to extermination or concentration camps. They didn't just kill jews in Germany, or in Poland, but in every single country that they could get the puppet governments to agree to. This is also why Poland experienced such a massive population loss from the war. It's actually one of the only countries losses from war are rivaled by losses explicitly from the Holocaust.