Christopher Nolan didn't want orchestra music in the score for The Odyssey because orchestra music didn't exist in ancient Greece. Yet he casts brown people and almost no ethnic greeks. How can you justify not using an orchestra for a score because of historical accuracy but cast it for the modern day? I know it's two days and two Odyssey posts, I'll stop I promise.
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The Rieu translation is my go to, though it's almost impossible to find the original unrevised version now.
The revision was by his son, and there's nothing wrong with it that I noticed (though I was pleasure reading, not critically reading).
After reading an Iliad that wasn't a "pleasure reading" translation, I feel like I won't get through the Odyssey unless it is.