The oldest written history of the Slavs can be shortly summarised--myriads of slave hunts and the enthralment of entire peoples. The Slav was the most prized of human goods. With increased strength outside his marshy land of origin, hardened to the utmost against all privation, industrious, content with little, good-humoured, and cheerful, he filled the slave markets of Europe, Asia, and Africa. It must be remembered that for every Slavonic slave who reached his destination, at least ten succumbed to inhuman treatment during transport and to the heat of the climate. Indeed Ibrāhīm (tenth century), himself in all probability a slave dealer, says: "And the Slavs cannot travel to Lombardy on account of the heat which is fatal to them." Hence their high price.
The Arabian geographer of the ninth century tells us how the Magyars in the Pontus steppe dominated all the Slavs dwelling near them. The Magyars made raids upon the Slavs and took their prisoners along the coast to Kerkh where the Byzantines came to meet them and gave Greek brocades and such wares in exchange for the prisoners. ["The Cambridge Medieval History," Vol. II, 1913]
Learn history... Slave was always a racial slur to denigrate the Slavic people as chattel property, hence the Latin word sclavus. This was well before the ottomans. Then again, I wouldn’t expect rationality from you.
That is a slur. You are now saying reducing an entire race to owned property by definition is not a slur. Tell me, how far is your head up your ass? Do I need you to go read the definition of slur?
It still doesn't change the fact that it's not a racial slur in the vernacular either.
Wow, you actually are this pathetic, pick up a dictionary?
You just said a word used to reduce an entire race to chattel property is not a slur, completely misused the word vernacular to the point it makes me question your English, and then said a racial slur by definition is not a racial slur.
Learn history... Slave was always a racial slur to denigrate the Slavic people as chattel property, hence the Latin word sclavus. This was well before the ottomans. Then again, I wouldn’t expect rationality from you.
That's not a slur. They are literally identifying a foreign people by identifying them as a commodity.
It still doesn't change the fact that it's not a racial slur in the vernacular either.
That is a slur. You are now saying reducing an entire race to owned property by definition is not a slur. Tell me, how far is your head up your ass? Do I need you to go read the definition of slur?
Wow, you actually are this pathetic, pick up a dictionary?
You just said a word used to reduce an entire race to chattel property is not a slur, completely misused the word vernacular to the point it makes me question your English, and then said a racial slur by definition is not a racial slur.