Important to note and specifically refute the lie that "Birthright citizenship" is guaranteed by the 14th amendment
All persons born or naturalized in the United States, and subject to the jurisdiction thereof, are citizens of the United States and of the State wherein they reside.
"Chapo speak".
Have you ever actually analyzed a document before? It's quite clear that the exception is there because of diplomatic immunity, as ambassadors are traditionally the only people who are not subject to the laws of the state in which they reside, which is why ambassadors can be expelled but not prosecuted without having their immunity stripped by their home country.
"I'm so fucking inbred, so fucking retarded, and so confident in same dipshit politicians that Mark Twain called idiots, fools, and fleas constantly, that I will resort to simply name-calling you"
All Congresses and Parliaments have a kindly feeling for idiots, and a compassion for them, on account of personal experience and heredity.
Mark Twain's Autobiography; also in Mark Twain in Eruption
As it turns out, being in denial does not make me wrong, it only makes you about as intelligent as the average German who believes that Kant can be correct about anything.
You read "born in" skipped "under the jurisdiction thereof" (probably because you misinterpreted it) and came up with birthright citizenship.
The Slaughter-House Cases
In the Slaughter-House Cases, 83 U.S. (16 Wall.) 36 (1873)[b]—a civil rights case not dealing specifically with birthright citizenship—a majority of the Supreme Court mentioned in passing that "the phrase 'subject to its jurisdiction' was intended to exclude from its operation children of ministers, consuls, and citizens or subjects of foreign States born within the United States".
Obviously there is room for some change here, like how illegal immigrants who haven't become citizens themselves would be "subjects of foreign States"
You quite literally quote the same cases that are the basis of why I'm telling you that you are incorrect.
It is quite obvious that they were solely there because diplomatic immunity is such that they are effectively unable to be prosecuted by the home countries laws if they are an ambassador (if you don't want to piss the other country off).
It is, in fact, quite possible that the entire Lincoln and post-Lincoln administration is made up of retards and the denial of this is quite astonishing.
You're not very bright, are you? You actually think they repeated themselves by saying "the phrase 'subject to its jurisdiction' was intended to exclude from its operation children of ministers, consuls, and citizens or subjects of foreign States born within the United States".
https://constitution.congress.gov/constitution/amendment-14/
It is in fact possible for congresscritters in the 1860s to be incredibly short-sighted my dude.
Using smug Chapo speak doesn't make you right even if you're convinced you are.
"Chapo speak". Have you ever actually analyzed a document before? It's quite clear that the exception is there because of diplomatic immunity, as ambassadors are traditionally the only people who are not subject to the laws of the state in which they reside, which is why ambassadors can be expelled but not prosecuted without having their immunity stripped by their home country.
Shut up, dipshit.
"I'm so fucking inbred, so fucking retarded, and so confident in same dipshit politicians that Mark Twain called idiots, fools, and fleas constantly, that I will resort to simply name-calling you"
As it turns out, being in denial does not make me wrong, it only makes you about as intelligent as the average German who believes that Kant can be correct about anything.
You read "born in" skipped "under the jurisdiction thereof" (probably because you misinterpreted it) and came up with birthright citizenship.
Obviously there is room for some change here, like how illegal immigrants who haven't become citizens themselves would be "subjects of foreign States"
You quite literally quote the same cases that are the basis of why I'm telling you that you are incorrect.
It is quite obvious that they were solely there because diplomatic immunity is such that they are effectively unable to be prosecuted by the home countries laws if they are an ambassador (if you don't want to piss the other country off).
It is, in fact, quite possible that the entire Lincoln and post-Lincoln administration is made up of retards and the denial of this is quite astonishing.
You're not very bright, are you? You actually think they repeated themselves by saying "the phrase 'subject to its jurisdiction' was intended to exclude from its operation children of ministers, consuls, and citizens or subjects of foreign States born within the United States".
Do you know how lists work?