Its illegal to boycott israel in some states in America but legal to boycott America in America. Makes you think
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Boycotting Israel within the US is not "enemy action." If BDS as an organization is an enemy than it can be outlawed. These laws will affect anyone who wants to boycott Israel for any reason, not just someone affiliated with BDS.
And what if it was just someone who boycotted Bud Lite, for example? Should the state refuse to award contracts to someone who does that?
They typically aren't. Even back in the day when I was more Left-wing, I read the laws and they explicitly specify being part of the BDS movement itself. Just refusing to do business with Israel is not enough, and implicitly refusing is entirely unenforceable.
This still isn't related to anti-BDS, or anything around it.
You're better off talking about federal funds to abortion providers versus planned parenthood.
As enacted, prohibits a public entity from entering into a contract with a company unless the contract includes a written certification that the company is not currently engaged in, and will not for the duration of the contract engage in, a boycott of Israel
Nope. There are "anti-BDS" laws that just generically strong arm companies into not boycotting Israel.
Okay, and can you tell me what evidence there is of not buying something from Israel?
There isn't. You physically can't get any.
This is why the point is to stop an organized BDS effort. This is also because a ton of the Arab states that did engage in boycotting Israel, publicly declared their intentions to do so as part of an organized boycott to economically damage the country so it could be invaded.
The real issue here is that the Arab states will many times require companies to boycott Israel in order to operate within the country, as per the organized economic warfare effort.
Hence, why this BDS law stops those companies from participating in the organized economic war against Israel. You know, enemy action.
"I don't want to buy bagels from you, neener neener joo-joo", is not going to be covered by this, and couldn't be enforced.
Cases like this can be built in the same way a "discrimination" case could, i.e. by statements the charged person made or if they chose to do business with another company over an Israeli one when the Israeli one had a plausible argument that they were a better fit. That's the kind of evidence the state could try to build.
Again, what's the libertarian case for supporting this expansion of state power? You haven't argued any of this from a libertarian perspective.