Dude, I'm not even sure how that statement can be dishonest.
If you think she's white, you'd have to assume she's predominantly Spanish in ancestry. That would make sense.
To make that work, you have to assume the Spanish are considered a white people. That follows.
To make that work, you would have to assume that the Spanish didn't intermarry with domestic or imported populations. That follows.
Now, maybe your objection is that the Spanish had inter-racial relationships a lot of the time:
I'm sorry, but it's a matter of historical record. Heavy emphasis on segregation is an Anglo historical artifact. The Spanish conquests involved a significant amount of Spanish soldiers not only setting up plantations with their conquests, but effectively building small harems for themselves. The colonizers themselves had little objection to this, although it was more objected to in Spain. In South America, the populations are very mixed race, which is why Anglo terms are unnuanced. Racial policies in South America range wildly between favoring whites, to favoring white-mix, to favoring all races but not immigrants, to mandatory race mixing in order to reduce ethnic division, to mandatory whitening of populations by rewarding European immigration and intermarriage.
Only the urban anglosphere had a heavy emphasis on racial separation. Pioneering populations were far more willing to engage in race-mixing, as well as non-British populations. The French were more sensitive to it than the Spanish, but not as sensitive as the British, as they were a Liberal state after the revolution.
Beyond that, the strict government regulation of race was very much an American cultural phenomenon. Racial segregation was routinely bizarre to most Europeans when the encountered American culture en masse in WW1 & WW2.
Dude, I'm not even sure how that statement can be dishonest.
If you think she's white, you'd have to assume she's predominantly Spanish in ancestry. That would make sense.
To make that work, you have to assume the Spanish are considered a white people. That follows.
To make that work, you would have to assume that the Spanish didn't intermarry with domestic or imported populations. That follows.
Now, maybe your objection is that the Spanish had inter-racial relationships a lot of the time:
I'm sorry, but it's a matter of historical record. Heavy emphasis on segregation is an Anglo historical artifact. The Spanish conquests involved a significant amount of Spanish soldiers not only setting up plantations with their conquests, but effectively building small harems for themselves. The colonizers themselves had little objection to this, although it was more objected to in Spain. In South America, the populations are very mixed race, which is why Anglo terms are unnuanced. Racial policies in South America range wildly between favoring whites, to favoring white-mix, to favoring all races but not immigrants, to mandatory race mixing in order to reduce ethnic division, to mandatory whitening of populations by rewarding European immigration and intermarriage.
Only the urban anglosphere had a heavy emphasis on racial separation. Pioneering populations were far more willing to engage in race-mixing, as well as non-British populations. The French were more sensitive to it than the Spanish, but not as sensitive as the British, as they were a Liberal state after the revolution.
Beyond that, the strict government regulation of race was very much an American cultural phenomenon. Racial segregation was routinely bizarre to most Europeans when the encountered American culture en masse in WW1 & WW2.
That's a lot of words to justify calling a non-White criminal a White criminal.
You're reading into this. If anything, I'm saying that by your standards she couldn't possibly be white.
Giz: It is entirely possible that she is white
Also Giz: I'm saying she couldn't possibly be white.
Dude, your reading comprehension is shot.