Y’all keep downvoting Imp every time he says something, and that post on Gaza houses got me thinking, because I’m genuinely curious. Currently, society is in situation where the majority of visible feminists are affluent white female liberals (AWFLs), but this is a question that needs answering in my opinion.
You're viewing a single comment thread. View all comments, or full comment thread.
Comments (30)
sorted by:
If we’re talking the 19th century suffragists it was all a conglomeration of female socialists. Jews were not prominent in the political sphere of influence like they were at the post WW2 era to today. Essentially it was a bunch of AWFLs back then too, affluent women who were pissed off they didn’t have all the same access and influence as men despite having none of the responsibilities as well. This was where the Elizabeth Cady Stanton, Susan B. Anthony, etc all came from affluence and lived comfortably on the excesses created by others. They were some of the original “career activists” because they never actually had to work for money or have to work to survive as many families did back then.
Not prominent my ass, the Rothschild bankers were around since 1760's and the French revolution was directly caused by them destroying the wealth of France
I’m talking about being the public face. There were no Kissingers in government at that time, no steinems pushing “equality”. Could they have had background influence? Possibly, but from what we know historically, the suffragists were predominantly affluent white women who didn’t have to work or home make so they became “activists and writers”
White societies had no feminism for thousands of years until jews came in to prominence. But sure keep blaming White people for feminism
😂😂😂 explain the Maenads then?
Literally a lie.
Now that is interesting. You certainly know more than the historians of the era. Where did you learn that?