It's more complicated than that and also varies from state to state. Premarital assets can turn into community property if you commingle them with marital assets.
unless you're a lawyer who has worked in this field, I'm going to reject your opinion.
separate property is separate property and I don't think you know what "comingling" means. the whole point of a lot of family law litigation is to distinguish between separate and community property.
You can reject whatever you like. I'm not a lawyer, but this is what one told me regarding a premarital house in my state:
Once you're married, your new income becomes joint property. If you use that joint income to pay a mortgage or make improvements on the premarital house, you've given them a monetary interest in the house in the case of a divorce. Which actually makes sense, since you used "shared" money on a personal asset.
Likewise, inheritances are considered a personal asset, but if you dump the funds in a joint account, you risk converting them into a joint asset. Google it if you don't believe me.
As I said, it's complicated and varies state to state. You rolling in here with your absolute statement and rude tone is just spreading bad advice and making you look the fool.
You rolling in here with your absolute statement and rude tone
And there is the truth: you got triggered by your perception of my tone, and so you lashed out at me like a jackass. Happens to me ALL the time. I couldn't care less that I triggered you.
If you use that joint income to pay a mortgage or make improvements on the premarital house, you've given them a monetary interest in the house in the case of a divorce.
HUGE climbdown from your stupid and wrong comment that "Premarital assets can turn into community property if you commingle them with marital assets." Owning 2% of a house is different from owning 100% of the house. Also, the community would just be reimbursed for any payments, as opposed to trying to figure out what some percentage it might have in separate property would be worth.
FYI all money you have before marriage is separate property. Spouses only get half of NEW MONEY made AFTER the marriage began.
So if you're rich and unemployed and have no income, the woman basically gets nothing.
It's more complicated than that and also varies from state to state. Premarital assets can turn into community property if you commingle them with marital assets.
unless you're a lawyer who has worked in this field, I'm going to reject your opinion.
separate property is separate property and I don't think you know what "comingling" means. the whole point of a lot of family law litigation is to distinguish between separate and community property.
You can reject whatever you like. I'm not a lawyer, but this is what one told me regarding a premarital house in my state:
Once you're married, your new income becomes joint property. If you use that joint income to pay a mortgage or make improvements on the premarital house, you've given them a monetary interest in the house in the case of a divorce. Which actually makes sense, since you used "shared" money on a personal asset.
Likewise, inheritances are considered a personal asset, but if you dump the funds in a joint account, you risk converting them into a joint asset. Google it if you don't believe me.
As I said, it's complicated and varies state to state. You rolling in here with your absolute statement and rude tone is just spreading bad advice and making you look the fool.
And there is the truth: you got triggered by your perception of my tone, and so you lashed out at me like a jackass. Happens to me ALL the time. I couldn't care less that I triggered you.
HUGE climbdown from your stupid and wrong comment that "Premarital assets can turn into community property if you commingle them with marital assets." Owning 2% of a house is different from owning 100% of the house. Also, the community would just be reimbursed for any payments, as opposed to trying to figure out what some percentage it might have in separate property would be worth.