As we now have trans as a protected class it has shown the slippery slope in full free fall from the “gay rights” debate a decade ago. The problem is that laws based on fallacies will always be abused because their is no need to prove that any additions are legitimate. We have known for centuries men and women are not equal, we have known for centuries that racial aggregates depended on the culture dictating genetics. When we pretended that this didn’t matter we opened the door for non-biological protected classes. There has never been any evidence that being gay or trans is genetic, and there has been inconclusive evidence that gay and trans is biological at all aside from the biological impact occurring from grooming. In fact the best biological evidence we have is that external stimuli (aka other people) is what causes biological changes in the individual. Yet now we have more protected classes that are inherently non-biological than provably biological. These abuses are meant to subjugate not protect, they are meant to deny reality in place of accepting it.
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I'm not a geneticist so I can't give you such information. However, I don't think you are even correct. Typically that's not how anything in genetics works. It sounds like you are looking for one specific "gene". There is no gay gene. There is also no IQ gene, and we know that IQ is heavily influenced by genetics.
Not only that, but you're not addressing my argument. You're coming at it from your perspective not mine. I'm not asserting that I have genetic evidence. I'm saying I have historical and anecdotal evidence that it very likely isn't purely environmental, which is the implied argument from someone arguing pure genetic determinism. I'm tackling the problem from the alternative hypothesis. Let us assume all homosexual conduct is socially conditioned through grooming and there is NEVER a biological driver (which would be absurd on it's face). Could that hypothesis pass given what we already know elsewhere: No.
To be honest, full genetic determinism is a pretty silly argument to make, because that's pretty much not how humans operate generally. The idea that environment has no effect is mostly nonsense. It's an issue of degrees.
Of course, as you said, we already have the science saying there is no gay gene, but if you're going to say there is a genetic basis then the burden is on you to provide that there is a genetic component involved during the neo-natal, peri-natal, or pre-natal development process.
So far, there is zero neurophysiological evidence that even comes close to certifying this point of contention. In fact, the more we learn about neurological functioning during fetal development the more it completely nullifies any arguments about any potential genetic factor being involved.
Even if you want to split hairs that there is no single allele strand then where are the strands (plural)? Where are the genes that aren't affected by epigenetics?
That's why I said you're begging the question, because you've arrived at a conclusion based on zero evidence.
This is a false equivalence.
We know that various physiological capabilities/disabilities can be acquired through hereditary traits. For instance, memory retention, coordination, spatial articulation, and capacitive congruence, as well as sensory capabilities such as quality of eyesight, auricular attentiveness, or a heightened (or diminished) olfactory. This can affect a child's ability to retain, learn, focus, or develop intellectual capacities and capabilities.
For example, someone who is an excelled musician will develop epigenetic traits for hand-eye coordination, muscle memory, and sensory growth related to tone, pitch, and intonation. Developing traits that influence your biological chemistry can also affect an offspring, same as detrimental vices such as drugs or alcohol. In any case, this is why kids born to parents who have addictions come out with various disabilities or even neurological impairments, and it's typically why kids born to parents who have developed or excelled in an area of expertise, such as certain math, sciences, or arts, are more likely to develop in that area as well via cultivation. If you look at most accomplished music composers they were born into a home where one or both parents were also accomplished musicians.
The same thing applies to a lot of athletes as well, with certain athletes more likely inheriting certain traits that allowed them to excel with specific physical proficiency if their parent also had developed that trait.
However, your comparison falls flat between I.Q., and homosexuality because the expression of intellect is behavioural, not genetic, just like the expression of homosexuality is behavioural, not genetic. However, the capacity for intellect can be genetic, just like the capacity for a higher or lower sex drive can be genetic, but not the expression of said behaviour (there have been plenty of rapists who were impotent: https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/1795615/).
Furthermore, even then, there are a lot of factors that contribute to the expression of intellect, from sleep, to nutrition, to subculture, to education:
In short, this is why there is no single I.Q., allele strand because "intelligence" cannot be quantified as a singular paradigm, and much like homosexuality, we usually measure the epigenetic components of I.Q., after gene expression has occurred (usually after a child has developed and has been influenced in some capacity by their environment). It's a construction of behavioural expressions based on various genetic and learned factors.
Now homosexuality is based on behavioural acts, typically estimated as being based on sexual attraction. So what is sexual attraction? Sexual attraction is based on stimuli that excites the gonads. Well, how does that happen? Stimulated senses. Well, we now have a problem because as mentioned above, during the neo-natal process human sensory organs aren't fully developed due to the fact that the limbic system that allows us to perceive sensory stimuli isn't fully developed.
So this leads us back to the conundrum about genetic traits versus behaviour, because if there is no allele strand(s) attached to homosexuality, and the required behaviour traits of homosexuality requires sensory input, then it means it's developed post-natal. Because how can you have innate attraction before your senses are developed?
A good way of testing that concept is this: try to explain something you find attractive that doesn't require your five senses?
If you can't, then how can you have an innate attraction to something when the organs necessary for that attraction aren't developed at birth? And we already know that attraction of anything or towards anything is based on risk/reward, punishment/incentive factors related to stimuli, and we can only assess those traits through environmental influence, hence learned behaviour.
Except those examples are flawed for a number of reasons (I added that in the edited addendum of my first comment).
Could that hypothesis pass based on what exactly? Limited information based on anecdotes and historically insufficient data points? That's not a very convincing argument against that proposed assumption, even if it may be true.
This I can agree on.
Where is the neonatal allele strand that determines height?
Height can be affected by a number of gene clusters, up to 700 in fact. Polygenic clusters that are negatively impacted by hereditary or birthing defects can also affect height, along with nutrition, sleep, and region (i.e., altitude, weather, etc.)
You can actually read up on some of the clusters and strands that can impact height here: https://medlineplus.gov/genetics/understanding/traits/height/
Anything else?
Heritability is based on observational studies.
Rlevant part from your article is "which genes these variants are in and what they do to affect height are only partially understood".
Point being that there are a lot of things we don't know about genes. We don't know in exactly what way height or intelligence is genetic, we only know that they are based on observation and definition. And those are the most well studied, much more than homosexuality which no one wants to touch out of fear of woke backlash.
Essentially, you haven't proven that homosexuality isn't genetic. You've just stated that we don't know for sure yet to what degree it's genetic. If you frame it like that, no one will dissagree with you. Everything is a combination of genetics, epigenetics, and environment. That's not controversial.
You're arguing the exact same way a normie argues if you try to talk to them about the genetic and heritable component in IQ. They start going down a convoluted path to try to discredit you attacking everything from core assumptions to methodology to nitpicking on the smallest meaningless points. The best you can get out of this is a conclusion of "we don't know" but at a riddiculously high epistomological standard.
So it's pointless for you to make a negative argument. Can you put together a convincing positive argument? Something less retarded than "all gays were diddled and that's what turned them gay"? Something that doesn't have even bigger questionsmarks and holes around it than "probably homosexuality developed because group selection is real and there was an evolutionary advantage to having some % of non-reproducing caretakers".