But that was my point from the beginning?
They're trying to pretend what may have induced it is the motive, when the actual motive was very likely the same as every other violent act from a refugee going wild.
I feel it's an important distinction; especially when they immediately follow it with identity politic nonsense and pearl clutching over right-wing people ascribing motive themselves.
It immediately looks like they used that as the motive to purposely deflect away — if that makes sense. There is no feasible way that the motive for such an attack could possibly be discovered through police investigation that quickly; but it didn't stop them from preemptively attempting to shut it down, which can only lead any sensible person to believe they're trying to obfuscate the truth of what took place.

My guess, the person would be paranoid but without the drugs he was managing it, controlling it. I would not be surprised if the same applied to this dude, the guy had the violent tendencies, for what ever reason - religion, culture or maybe genetics, and the drugs gave him the will to act it out.

He was most likely a violent and hateful guy but fear of consequences was keeping him in check. The question now is if someone is a person with repressed anger and takes drugs willingly does that excuse him from the consequences of his actions? Would the same apply to drunken wife-beaters?