I don’t know much about civil proceedings, so I hope someone can help me out. The whole legal proceedings against Mr. Jones were obviously a politically motivated persecution of him with the express goal of silencing him. I don’t think there is any question about that. Now, I don’t know if anything he said actually rises to an actual standard of defamation or damage against any of the plaintiffs, but even if it did no reasonable person would ever believe he did over a billion dollars in damages to the plaintiffs. That is entirely absurd, and the award that was given to the plaintiffs was clearly designed to utterly destroy Mr. Jones in perpetuity.
My question is this…it would seem to me that on appeal that even if the verdict against Mr. Jones was not overturned the damages awarded to the plaintiffs would surely be reduced by a very substantial amount, because anyone who look at it reasonably can tell what’s being done. I mean, hell, they’re rigging the auction of their property to make sure it goes into “approved” hands. So, why hasn’t he appealed?
Here is the key thing you need to know about both CT and TX trials:
They were default judgements for failing to produce discovery that he didn't even have access to.
Neither of his cases were ever decided on the merits.
This is why he was never allowed to present any sort of defense at the "trials," and was, in fact, threatened with contempt of court if he even tried. His guilt was already determined, the trials were about the damages.
We see how that went.
I don't know if either of his cases are on appeal, but if they were not, he needs to fire his lawyers.
Robert Barnes has an epic rant about this on Viva's Rumble channel, somewhere. I will see if I can find it.
Here is a YT video about it: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=iDnYVPq7Q4c
Apparently the judge on the case is the same one who indicted the governor of Texas for vetoing a bill. Since only the legislature can override a veto, that is a clear usurpation of authority and grounds for removal. Blatantly corrupt.