From what I understand the accusation is that the money he gave Stormy Daniels falls under: " crime to conspire to promote a candidacy by unlawful means"
What is the angle here, is he trying to turn a misdemeanor that was prescribed to something much bigger?
How can he do that without first having a trial for the misdemeanor itself? Isn't Trump innocent until proven guilty? In that case they must first convict him on the "unlawful means" before charging him on "crime to conspire to promote a candidacy by unlawful means".
What do you guys think it will happen and how do you see it going down?
If we're talking about the established right and most of those in power, you're probably right.
But this is a 'crossing the Rubicon' kind of deal in that a lot of people didn't want to do similar and with more standing actions against Hilary or Obama etc because they didn't want to cross that line. Now them dems have, you might start with a few before it starts to flood through similar indictments against a lot more politicians.