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posted ago by Galean ago by Galean +23 / -2

From what I understand the accusation is that the money he gave Stormy Daniels falls under: " crime to conspire to promote a candidacy by unlawful means"

What is the angle here, is he trying to turn a misdemeanor that was prescribed to something much bigger?

How can he do that without first having a trial for the misdemeanor itself? Isn't Trump innocent until proven guilty? In that case they must first convict him on the "unlawful means" before charging him on "crime to conspire to promote a candidacy by unlawful means".

What do you guys think it will happen and how do you see it going down?