When Aristotle talks about the folly of immigration using examples of Greece do you think it's completely unapplicable and if you try to use his example in modernity, you're "changing the meaning"?
Immigration in ancient Greece is far more comparable to immigration now than is an ethnic group vs. an ideology.
People who follow an ideology are committed to a set of ideas. They can change their minds. But to blame all your troubles on an ethnic group is pretty bizarre.
You're not necessarily changing the meaning, just looking at what Hitler had to say through a different lens.
Immigration in ancient Greece is far more comparable to immigration now than is an ethnic group vs. an ideology.
People who follow an ideology are committed to a set of ideas. They can change their minds. But to blame all your troubles on an ethnic group is pretty bizarre.
Nothing sensible.