context aside, does anyone know if there's any validity to the claim in the original post? it would make sense to me seeing that the Nazi party was in many ways a reaction to the degeneracy of Weimar Germany. but I don't know of any sources that specifically state that there was child prostitution running rampant.

contacts aside, does anyone know if there's any validity to the claim in the original post? it would make sense to me seeing that the Nazi party was in many ways a reaction to the degeneracy of Weimar Germany. but I don't know of any sources that specifically state that there was child prostitution running rampant.