I think there's a biological mechanism at play.

Every time this comes up there is a simple question that disrupts this line of thinking and you -- like all others who I've asked previously -- will either have to ignore the question or deflect, because it's not rooted in the basic fundamentals of biogenetics nor neurology, and that question is: where is the neonatal allele strand that determines homosexuality?

You'll point to the studies that have examined the epigenetic effects of homosexuality that claim, post-observation, that they have found genetic markers in homosexual behaviour. As I pointed out in previous comments, all of those links are attached to behavioural traits that were expressed as a phenotype AFTER the subjects became engaged in homosexuality; namely markers associated with depression, emotional imbalances, and heavy substance abuse.

Unfortunately people have been far too brainwashed by all of the misinformation floating around out there by pseudo-scientists and propagandists to understand the differences between social conditioning and genetic influences.

EDIT:

As an addendum.... your deferring to homosexuality having a basis in genetics is begging the question.

Particularly in Sparta, which was so gay it genuinely had population problems, and Spartan wives had to be shaved, dressed as younger men, and placed in darkened rooms to consummate their marriage

This here is the perfect example of, as you mentioned, sociological institutionalization of homosexuality, having zero basis in genetics. Especially considering that if it were gene-based they wouldn't be able to dress the women like little boys to get the men to have sex with them. So they used behavioural conditioning for the men to engage in pederasty and then that same behavioural conditioning to get the men to have sex with the women. That's a mutable trait -- if there was a genetic component there then they wouldn't have been able to be groomed one way and then the other through sociological conditioning.

if homosexuality were a pure social construct that had no biological roots, you would also have to consider that heterosexuality were just as socially constructed, and that it a purely homosexual environment, you could basically eliminate heterosexuality altogether through grooming

You're begging the question again while ignoring basic biological science.

Human males and females are sexually dimorphic, meaning only males can inseminate females for impregnation and only females can become impregnated by insemination. That in itself is biological essentialism.

When puberty comes into play the average man will want to inseminate a woman. When a woman is ovulating, the average woman will want to be inseminated by a man as a biological necessity of procreation.

There is no biological necessity inherent in homosexual behaviour since neither two men nor two women can procreate. So the act is purely out of an expression of lust, and/or a need/desire to engage in sexual release, as evident with homosexual behaviour observed in animals typically when there aren't enough males/females for mating pairs. They (re)act out of primal urges. That's not genetic, it's instinctual; part of a base set of primal hormonal responses, sort of like how perfectly straight men will sometimes engage in homosexual acts in prison due to a lack of female companionship.

And before the instincts tangent is brought into the equation, the arguments surrounding the normalization of various instinctual acts is also moot, because people have all sorts of urges, thoughts, or desires. But the thoughts based on said urges are formulated through environmental stimuli, and without that stimuli the urges have no way to materialize as thought patterns.

I think there's a biological mechanism at play.

Every time this comes up there is a simple question that disrupts this line of thinking and you -- like all others who I've asked previously -- will either have to ignore the question or deflect, because it's not rooted in the basic fundamentals of biogenetics nor neurology, and that question is: where is the neonatal allele strand that determines homosexuality?

You'll point to the studies that have examined the epigenetic effects of homosexuality that claim, post-observation, that they have found genetic markers in homosexual behaviour. As I pointed out in previous comments, all of those links are attached to behavioural traits that were expressed as a phenotype AFTER the subjects became engaged in homosexuality; namely markers associated with depression, emotional imbalances, and heavy substance abuse.

Unfortunately people have been far too brainwashed by all of the misinformation floating around out there by pseudo-scientists and propagandists to understand the differences between social conditioning and genetic influences.